Question.

Oct. 15th, 2008 06:13 pm
bktheirregular: (1984)
[personal profile] bktheirregular
If I convinced an American ex-pat (and still a U.S. citizen) living in Sweden to look into casting an absentee ballot (she mistakenly thought that her right to vote had lapsed), and cast my own absentee ballot (if and when the damn thing ever comes), does that mean I've effectively voted twice?

Date: 2008-10-15 04:09 pm (UTC)
From: [identity profile] chibiaingeal.livejournal.com
Only if you told the ex-pat how to vote and she lisens to you. :)

Date: 2008-10-15 04:24 pm (UTC)
havocthecat: the lady of shalott (weir/oneill 2008)
From: [personal profile] havocthecat
It doesn't count as voting twice unless you're an ex-Chicago resdent. ;)

Date: 2008-10-16 03:15 pm (UTC)
From: [identity profile] weirdweb.livejournal.com
Nope. You're not forcing her to vote for a certain candidate, just enabling her to vote. :)

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